Hi, I've been trying to put together all of the topics I've learned in the past 2 weeks...can someone check this to see if this correct:

Assume:

1000 PAR -- 3% Coupon, paid semi anually -- 6 years to maturity -- YTM= 8% -- Price=765.37

(1) Total Return= [(1000-765.37) + 180] / 765.37 = 54.17

(2) "Simple" Avg Annual Return... 54.17/6 = 9.0928...but, this does not take compunding into account....so we use...

(3) CAGR= geometric avg of the annual growth rate= takes compouding into account....it says, ' if you invested 765.37 at this amount on an annual basis, you would have produce the same total amount'.....1180= 765.37 * (1+i)^6 ...we use 6 because we are calculating the compund ANNUAL growth rate. = 7.48%

(4) YTM assumes that all coupon payments are invested at the same rate as the YTM...therefore, if we treat the 12 coupon payments as annnuity with a discount rate of 4% (8%/2)...we get...FV Ordinary annutiy= [((1+.04)^23) -1) / .04] 15 = 225.38...225.38 + 1000 par we rec at maturity = 1225.38...NOW, calculate the FV of 765.37 @ 4% semi-annual rate for 12 periods= 765.37(1.04^12)=1225.38

(5) Can also convert the 4% + 4% YTM into an EAR...EAR= (1+.04)^2 -1=.0816=8.16%..........765.37(1.0816^6)= 1225.38

Thanks for any feedback or corrections...it gets me very confused!

Thanks,

Joe